CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Quiz 1

Welcome to CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Quiz 1! In this quiz, you will find CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure practice questions on routing protocols, switching, MPLS, QoS, multicast, IPv6 and Cisco configurations. With these CCIE practice questions, you can test your knowledge, review important networking topics and prepare for your CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure certification.

CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Practice Test 1

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Question 1
A DHCP server is located in a different subnet from its clients. The router interface connected to the clients is configured with an ip helper-address pointing to the DHCP server. What is the primary function of this command?
A
Encrypt DHCP messages between clients and the server
B
Configure the router as a DHCP server
C
Assign static IP addresses to clients
D
Forward DHCP broadcast requests to the remote DHCP server
E
Disable DHCP broadcasts on the network
Question 1 Explanation: 
The ip helper-address command enables DHCP relay functionality by forwarding client DHCP requests to a DHCP server on another subnet.
Question 2
Two Cisco routers have an eBGP session in the Established state. Router R1 receives a route from R2, but the route is not installed in the IP routing table. Which issue could prevent the BGP route from being installed?
A
The BGP neighbor uses TCP port 179
B
The routers have different interface descriptions
C
The routers have different BGP Router IDs
D
The BGP session uses an external AS number
E
The BGP next-hop address is unreachable
Question 2 Explanation: 
A BGP route requires a reachable next hop to be considered valid for route selection and installation. An unreachable next hop can prevent the route from entering the routing table.
Question 3
Two routers running OSPFv3 are directly connected. Both routers have matching area IDs and Hello/Dead timers, but they fail to establish an adjacency. Which configuration mismatch can prevent OSPFv3 neighbor formation?
A
Different interface bandwidth values
B
Different OSPFv3 Router IDs
C
Different IPv6 link-local addresses
D
Different OSPFv3 process IDs
E
Different interface descriptions
Question 3 Explanation: 
OSPFv3 routers must have unique Router IDs. If two neighboring routers use the same Router ID, OSPFv3 adjacency formation can fail. Process IDs are locally significant and do not need to match between routers.
Question 4
How can we display OSPF neighbor adjacency state changes on a Cisco router?
A
debug ip ospf events
B
debug ip ospf hello
C
debug ip ospf adj
D
debug ip ospf packets
E
debug ip ospf database
Question 4 Explanation: 
The debug ip ospf adj command displays OSPF adjacency events and neighbor state changes. It is useful for troubleshooting OSPF neighborship problems.
Question 5
A Cisco IOS XE router uses Control Plane Policing (CoPP) to protect its CPU. After a new CoPP policy is applied, OSPF adjacencies begin flapping. Interface error counters remain normal, but OSPF control packets are being dropped. Which action should the network engineer take?
A
Configure OSPF passive interfaces on all router links.
B
Disable OSPF authentication on all interfaces.
C
Disable CEF on the affected interfaces.
D
Increase the OSPF administrative distance.
E
Review the CoPP class matching OSPF traffic and adjust its policing rate.
Question 5 Explanation: 
An overly restrictive CoPP policy can drop legitimate OSPF control packets, causing neighbor adjacencies to flap. The engineer should examine the CoPP classification, drop counters and policing rate, then adjust the policy to allow legitimate routing protocol traffic.
Question 6
Two PIM routers forward multicast traffic onto the same LAN and trigger a PIM Assert election. Both routers have the same route preference toward the multicast source. Router R1 has a metric of 20, while R2 has a metric of 30. Which router wins the Assert election? PIM-assert-election-ccie-questions
A
The router with the lower IP address always wins
B
R1 because it has the lower metric
C
R2 because it has the higher metric
D
The router with the higher multicast group address wins
E
Both routers continue forwarding
Question 6 Explanation: 
In a PIM Assert election, the router with the better (lower) route preference wins. If route preferences are equal, the router with the lower metric wins. If both are equal, the higher IP address is used as the tie-breaker.
Question 7
An enterprise multicast network uses two Anycast Rendezvous Points (RPs) with the same RP address. The network uses PIM Sparse Mode with traditional MSDP-based Anycast RP. Which protocol allows the RPs to exchange information about active multicast sources?
A
Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
B
PIM Bootstrap Router
C
IGMPv3
D
Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
E
Multicast Listener Discovery (MLD)
Question 7 Explanation: 
In traditional MSDP-based Anycast RP deployments, MSDP exchanges Source-Active (SA) information between RPs. This allows the RPs to learn about active multicast sources registered with other RPs.
Question 8
Which command should be used inside a Cisco BGP route-map to set the Local Preference to 120?
A
set as-path 120
B
set preference 120
C
set weight 120
D
set local-preference 120
E
set metric 120
Question 8 Explanation: 
The set local-preference 120 command modifies the BGP Local Preference attribute. Higher Local Preference values are preferred within an autonomous system.
Question 9
A network engineer configures a two-rate, three-color traffic policer. A packet exceeds both the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and Peak Information Rate (PIR) limits. How is the packet classified?
A
Unmarked
B
Red
C
Yellow
D
Blue
E
Green
Question 9 Explanation: 
In a two-rate, three-color policer, packets within the committed limits are green, packets exceeding the committed limits but within peak limits are yellow, and packets exceeding peak limits are red.
Question 10
A multicast router needs to determine whether receivers on a local network are interested in traffic from specific multicast sources for a particular multicast group. Which IGMPv3 query type should it use?
A
Group-and-Source-Specific Query
B
Membership Report
C
Group-Specific Query
D
PIM Join Message
E
General Query
Question 10 Explanation: 
IGMPv3 Group-and-Source-Specific Queries allow a multicast router to check receiver interest in particular sources associated with a multicast group. This supports source-aware multicast membership management.
Question 11
R1 is the active HSRP router with a priority of 120, while R2 has a priority of 100 and preemption enabled. R1 must reduce its HSRP priority by 40 when interface GigabitEthernet0/1 goes down. Which command should be configured on R1 under the HSRP interface?
A
standby 1 preempt delay 40
B
hsrp 1 track GigabitEthernet0/1 40
C
standby 1 track GigabitEthernet0/1 40
D
standby 1 track 40 GigabitEthernet0/1
E
standby 1 priority decrement 40
Question 11 Explanation: 
On Cisco IOS platforms supporting direct HSRP interface tracking, the command reduces R1's priority from 120 to 80 when the tracked interface goes down. R2 can then become active because its priority is higher and preemption is enabled.
Question 12
A Cisco router experiences frequent OSPF link-state changes, causing repeated LSA generation and increased control-plane activity. The network engineer wants to control how quickly the router originates successive instances of the same LSA. Which OSPF feature should be configured?
A
OSPF SPF Throttling
B
OSPF Stub Router Advertisement
C
OSPF Prefix Suppression
D
OSPF Passive Interface
E
OSPF LSA Throttling
Question 12 Explanation: 
OSPF LSA throttling controls the timing of successive LSA originations, helping reduce excessive LSA flooding during frequent topology changes. Unlike SPF throttling, which controls the scheduling of SPF calculations, LSA throttling controls LSA generation.
Question 13
An enterprise deploys Cisco SD-Access across multiple campus buildings. Endpoints inside the fabric need to communicate with networks outside the SD-Access fabric, including the data center and traditional enterprise networks. Which fabric component provides connectivity between the fabric and external networks? ccie-enterprise-infrastructure-Cisco-SD-Access-question
A
Fabric Edge Node
B
Wireless LAN Controller
C
Fabric Border Node
D
Control Plane Node
E
Extended Node
Question 13 Explanation: 
A Cisco SD-Access Fabric Border Node connects the fabric to external networks. It exchanges routing information between the fabric and external routing domains and provides connectivity for traffic entering or leaving the fabric.
Question 14
A network engineer wants to monitor interface statistics and routing information from multiple Cisco IOS XE routers in near real time. Instead of repeatedly polling devices using SNMP, the engineer wants the routers to automatically stream operational data to a centralized collector. Which approach should be used?
A
Configure NETCONF to continuously poll operational data.
B
Configure SNMP polling with shorter intervals.
C
Configure Model-Driven Telemetry with gRPC-based subscriptions.
D
Enable SPAN to forward management traffic to the collector.
E
Enable Syslog to send periodic interface statistics.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Model-Driven Telemetry enables Cisco IOS XE devices to stream operational data to a centralized collector using subscription-based mechanisms. With gRPC-based telemetry, network engineers can receive near-real-time updates without repeatedly polling devices through SNMP.
Question 15
A Cisco router runs EIGRP for IPv6. The network engineer wants to verify which IPv6 prefixes have been installed in the routing table through EIGRP. Which command should be used?
A
show ip route eigrp
B
show ipv6 route eigrp
C
show ipv6 eigrp topology
D
show ipv6 protocols
E
show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
Question 15 Explanation: 
The show ipv6 route eigrp command displays IPv6 routes learned through EIGRP and installed in the IPv6 routing table.
Question 16
A network engineer wants to classify traffic using application information instead of only IP addresses and TCP/UDP port numbers. Which Cisco feature can be used?
A
PBR
B
WRED
C
NBAR
D
IP SLA
E
NetFlow Export
Question 16 Explanation: 
Network-Based Application Recognition (NBAR) can identify and classify traffic based on application-level information. It is useful for application-aware QoS policies.
Question 17
A network engineer configures the following prefix list on a Cisco router. Which IPv4 prefix will match this prefix list?
ip prefix-list FILTER seq 5 permit 10.10.0.0/16 ge 24 le 28
bgp-prefix-filtering-question-ccie-enterprise-infrastructure
A
10.10.1.0/24
B
10.10.0.0/15
C
10.11.1.0/24
D
10.10.0.0/16
E
10.10.1.0/29
Question 17 Explanation: 
The prefix list permits subnets within 10.10.0.0/16 that have prefix lengths between /24 and /28. The prefix 10.10.1.0/24 matches both conditions.
Question 18
A Cisco switch has DHCP Snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) enabled. A host sends an ARP packet with an IP-to-MAC mapping that does not match the DHCP Snooping binding table. What will happen on an untrusted interface?
A
The switch updates the DHCP binding table
B
The switch disables DHCP Snooping
C
The switch forwards the ARP packet
D
The switch drops the ARP packet
E
The switch converts the ARP packet into a broadcast
Question 18 Explanation: 
Dynamic ARP Inspection validates ARP packets received on untrusted interfaces against trusted binding information. Invalid ARP packets are dropped.
Question 19
A Cisco IOS XE router uses VRF-Lite to separate the FINANCE and SERVICES networks into different routing tables. Hosts in FINANCE must access a shared application server in SERVICES, but the administrator does not want to merge the two VRFs. Which routing technique allows selected routes to be exchanged between the VRFs? ccie-enterprise-infrastructure-Cisco-IOS-XE-VRF-Lite-question
A
Policy-Based Routing Without VRF Awareness
B
OSPF Stub Area Configuration
C
VRF Route Leaking
D
BGP AS_PATH Prepending
E
Route Summarization
Question 19 Explanation: 
VRF route leaking allows selected routes to be shared between separate VRF routing tables while maintaining logical segmentation. Depending on the platform and design, this can be implemented using route-target import/export mechanisms or supported static route-leaking methods.
Question 20
Two PE routers exchange VPNv4 routes successfully through MP-BGP. However, a route advertised by PE1 is not imported into the customer VRF on PE2. The VPNv4 route is otherwise valid. Which configuration issue is the most likely cause? MPLS-L3VPN-ccie-enterprise-infrastructure
A
Different Route Distinguishers (RDs)
B
Mismatched Route Target import and export values
C
Different customer-facing interface speeds
D
Different PE router hostnames
E
Different MPLS label values
Question 20 Explanation: 
MPLS L3VPN uses Route Targets to control VPN route import and export. If the exported Route Target does not match an imported Route Target on PE2, the route will not be imported into the destination VRF.
Question 21
An enterprise uses two ISPs for Internet connectivity. The administrator wants a Cisco BGP router to advertise a backup prefix to ISP-B only when a specific route learned through ISP-A is no longer present in the local BGP table. Which BGP feature should be configured?
A
BGP Next-Hop Self
B
BGP Conditional Advertisement using an advertise-map and non-exist-map
C
BGP Maximum Paths
D
BGP Route Reflector
E
BGP AS_PATH Prepending
Question 21 Explanation: 
BGP conditional advertisement uses advertise-map with non-exist-map to advertise selected prefixes when a specified route is absent from the local BGP table. This can support backup connectivity designs.
Question 22
Two routers use OSPF with BFD enabled. The physical interface remains up, but BFD stops receiving control packets from the neighbor. What is the expected result when the BFD detection timer expires?
A
BFD notifies OSPF about the failure
B
The routers disable OSPF authentication
C
OSPF waits for the normal Dead Interval
D
All of them
E
BFD automatically increases the interface bandwidth
Question 22 Explanation: 
BFD provides fast failure detection. When a BFD session goes down, it notifies the associated routing protocol, allowing faster convergence.
Question 23
Which Cisco IOS command displays historical CPU utilization graphs for the last 60 seconds, 60 minutes and 72 hours?
A
show cpu history
B
show history processes
C
show processes cpu history
D
show processes history
E
show history
Question 23 Explanation: 
The show processes cpu history command displays historical CPU utilization graphs, helping network engineers identify CPU usage patterns and performance issues.
Question 24
Which Cisco IOS command can be used to reset an OSPFv3 process with Process ID 1?
A
clear ospf 1 process
B
clear ip ospf 1
C
clear ipv6 ospf 1 process
D
delete ipv6 ospf 1
E
delete ipv6 1 process
Question 25
A DMVPN Phase 3 network uses a hub-and-spoke topology. Spoke1 can communicate with Spoke2 through the hub, but a direct spoke-to-spoke tunnel is not established. The hub receives traffic between the spokes but does not send NHRP Redirect messages. Which configuration should the engineer verify on the hub tunnel interface? DMVPN-question-ccie-enterprise-infrastructure
A
tunnel mode gre multipoint
B
ip nhrp redirect
C
ip nhrp shortcut
D
ip nhrp map multicast dynamic
E
ip ospf network point-to-point
Question 25 Explanation: 
In DMVPN Phase 3, the hub uses ip nhrp redirect to inform a source spoke that a more direct path may be available. The source spoke uses NHRP shortcut functionality to resolve and establish direct spoke-to-spoke forwarding. The engineer should verify that NHRP Redirect is configured and operating on the hub.
Question 26
A Cisco router uses classic EIGRP metric calculation with default K-values. Which two parameters are used to calculate the composite metric?
A
Bandwidth and delay
B
MTU and bandwidth
C
Reliability and MTU
D
Bandwidth and reliability
E
Delay and load
Question 26 Explanation: 
With default K-values (K1=1, K3=1, K2=K4=K5=0), classic EIGRP calculates its composite metric using minimum path bandwidth and cumulative delay.
Question 27
A Cisco router uses EIGRP route summarization to reduce the number of routes advertised to its neighbors. However, the administrator needs to advertise one specific more-specific prefix in addition to the summary route. Which EIGRP feature allows selected routes to be advertised through the summary boundary?
A
EIGRP Variance
B
EIGRP Leak Map
C
EIGRP Maximum Paths
D
EIGRP Stub Routing
E
EIGRP Passive Interface
Question 27 Explanation: 
EIGRP leak maps allow selected more-specific routes to be advertised along with a summary route. This provides more granular reachability information while maintaining route summarization for the remaining prefixes.
Question 28
Two eBGP routers are directly connected and can ping each other. However, their BGP session remains in the Active state. Which issue could prevent the BGP session from being established?
A
Different BGP MED values
B
Different BGP Local Preference values
C
TCP port 179 is blocked by an ACL
D
Different OSPF process IDs
E
Different interface descriptions
Question 28 Explanation: 
BGP uses TCP port 179 to establish neighbor sessions. If an ACL blocks TCP port 179, the BGP session cannot be established even when IP connectivity is available.
Question 29
A network engineer wants to check the number of EIGRP Hello, Update, Query, Reply and ACK packets sent and received by a Cisco router. Which command should be used?
A
show ip protocols
B
show ip eigrp traffic
C
show ip eigrp packets
D
show ip eigrp topology
E
show ip eigrp neighbors
Question 29 Explanation: 
The show ip eigrp traffic command displays statistics for EIGRP packets sent and received, including Hello, Update, Query, Reply and acknowledgment packets.
Question 30
Two Cisco switches are connected through an LACP EtherChannel. One physical interface is configured as a trunk, while the other is configured as an access port. What is the most likely result? ccie-enterprise-infrastructure-LACP-EtherChannel-question
A
LACP automatically converts both interfaces into trunks
B
STP disables all VLANs on both switches
C
The interfaces fail to form a consistent EtherChannel bundle
D
The EtherChannel changes automatically to PAgP
E
Both interfaces join the EtherChannel successfully
Question 30 Explanation: 
EtherChannel member interfaces must have compatible Layer 2 configurations. A mismatch between trunk and access modes can prevent interfaces from joining the same bundle.
Question 31
A Cisco router receives two eBGP routes to the same destination. Both routes have equal Weight and Local Preference. Route A has an AS_PATH length of 2, while Route B has an AS_PATH length of 3. Which route will BGP prefer, assuming both routes are valid?
A
Route B
B
Both routes are always installed
C
Route A
D
The route with the higher MED
E
The route with the higher Router ID
Question 31 Explanation: 
BGP prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH when Weight and Local Preference are equal, assuming earlier best-path conditions do not distinguish the routes.
Question 32
Which Cisco IOS configuration denies FTP control connections from any source to the 192.168.1.0/24 network using an extended ACL named ABC?
A
deny ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq ftp
B
deny udp any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq ftp
C
deny tcp any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq ftp
D
deny tcp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any eq ftp
E
deny tcp any 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 eq ftp
Question 32 Explanation: 
Extended ACLs can filter traffic based on source address, destination address, protocol and port number. This entry denies TCP connections to the FTP control port (21) destined for 192.168.1.0/24.
Question 33
A Cisco router receives two BGP routes to 10.10.10.0/24 from different neighbors. Both routes are valid and have equal attributes except for Weight. Route A has Weight 200, while Route B has Weight 100. Which route will the router prefer?
A
The route with the lowest Router ID
B
Both routes will always be installed
C
Route B because it has a lower Weight
D
Route A because it has a higher Weight
E
The route with the highest MED
Question 33 Explanation: 
Cisco BGP prefers the route with the highest Weight. Weight is a Cisco-specific, locally significant attribute and is not advertised to BGP neighbors.
Question 34
Which Cisco IOS command displays routing table changes in real time for troubleshooting purposes?
A
debug ip routing
B
debug routing-table
C
debug routing
D
debug ip
E
debug ip protocols
Question 34 Explanation: 
The debug ip routing command displays changes to the IPv4 routing table, including route additions and removals. Debug commands should be used carefully on production routers.
Question 35
An EIGRP router has two paths to the same destination. The successor has a feasible distance of 1000. The alternate path has a reported distance of 900 and a total distance of 1200. What will EIGRP do with the alternate path? eigrp-successor-feasible-distance-question-ccie-enterprise-infrastructure (1)
A
Reject it because its total distance is higher
B
Remove the successor from the topology table
C
Accept it as a feasible successor
D
Start a DUAL query immediately
E
Install it as an equal-cost route
Question 35 Explanation: 
The alternate path satisfies the EIGRP feasibility condition because its reported distance (900) is lower than the successor's feasible distance (1000). Therefore, it can be accepted as a feasible successor.
Question 36
A switch port configured with Root Guard receives a superior BPDU. What happens to the port?
A
It enters an err-disabled state
B
It becomes the root port
C
It immediately transitions to forwarding
D
It becomes an alternate port
E
It enters a root-inconsistent state
Question 36 Explanation: 
Root Guard prevents a designated port from becoming a root port. When the port receives a superior BPDU, it enters the root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic until superior BPDUs are no longer received.
Question 37
Two Cisco switches participate in the same STP instance. SW1 has a bridge priority of 4096 and SW2 has a bridge priority of 8192. Both switches have default STP configurations otherwise. Which switch becomes the Root Bridge?
A
SW2 because it has the higher bridge priority
B
SW1 because it has the lower bridge priority
C
Both switches become Root Bridges
D
The switch with the higher MAC address
E
The switch with the highest interface bandwidth
Question 37 Explanation: 
STP elects the switch with the lowest Bridge ID as the Root Bridge. The bridge priority is compared first, so SW1 wins with a priority of 4096.
Question 38
A network engineer runs show ip eigrp neighbors and notices that the SRTT value for a neighbor has increased significantly. What does SRTT represent?
A
The time before an EIGRP route is removed from the routing table
B
The smoothed round-trip time for reliable EIGRP packets and their acknowledgments
C
The time required to establish the EIGRP adjacency
D
The interval between EIGRP Hello packets
E
The time remaining before the neighbor is declared down
Question 38 Explanation: 
SRTT (Smooth Round-Trip Time) measures the estimated time required to send a reliable EIGRP packet and receive its acknowledgment. It helps EIGRP calculate retransmission timeouts.
Question 39
Which Cisco IOS command is used to display MPLS LDP neighbors?
A
show mpls ldp neighbor
B
show mpls protocol ldp neighbor
C
show ldp neighbors
D
show mpls protocol ldp
E
show ldp neighbors detail
Question 40
An OSPF router receives external routes redistributed by an ASBR in a normal OSPF area. Which LSA type carries these external network prefixes?
A
Type 5 LSA
B
Type 4 LSA
C
Type 3 LSA
D
Type 2 LSA
E
Type 1 LSA
Question 40 Explanation: 
Type 5 LSAs advertise external routes redistributed into the OSPF domain by an ASBR. They are flooded throughout normal OSPF areas, but not into stub areas.
Question 41
Two OSPF routers are connected over a point-to-point Ethernet link. They receive Hello packets from each other, but the neighbor relationship remains in the 2-WAY state. Which issue could explain why they do not reach FULL adjacency? ospf-neighborship-hello-packets-ccie-enterprise-infrastructure
A
Different OSPF network types on the interfaces
B
Different administrative distances
C
Different interface descriptions
D
Different OSPF process IDs
E
Different interface bandwidth values
Question 41 Explanation: 
An OSPF network type mismatch can cause unexpected adjacency behavior. On a correctly configured point-to-point OSPF link, neighbors should normally progress to the FULL state. Remaining in 2-WAY can indicate a configuration mismatch.
Question 42
Which Cisco IOS command is used under VLAN configuration mode to designate a VLAN for Remote SPAN (RSPAN)?
A
remote-span run
B
span run remote
C
span run enable
D
remote-span enable
E
remote-span
Question 42 Explanation: 
The remote-span command designates a VLAN as an RSPAN VLAN, allowing mirrored traffic to be transported between switches for remote monitoring.
Question 43
Two Cisco switches are connected with two Ethernet links. SW1 uses LACP active mode, while SW2 uses LACP passive mode. What will happen if all other EtherChannel parameters match?
A
STP will block both physical interfaces
B
EtherChannel will not form
C
The switches will use PAgP automatically
D
Both interfaces will become err-disabled
E
EtherChannel will form successfully
Question 43 Explanation: 
LACP active mode initiates negotiation, while passive mode responds to LACP packets. Active and passive modes can successfully establish an EtherChannel.
Question 44
A company uses Cisco SD-WAN across multiple branch offices. The administrator wants to control which OMP routes are advertised to different sites based on VPN membership and site IDs. The policy must be applied centrally through the SD-WAN control plane. Which policy type should be used? ccie-enterprise-infrastructure-quizzes-Cisco-SD-WAN-question
A
Centralized Data Policy
B
Localized QoS Policy
C
Localized Data Policy
D
Centralized Control Policy
E
Application-Aware Routing Policy
Question 44 Explanation: 
Cisco SD-WAN Centralized Control Policies manipulate OMP routing information and TLOC advertisements. They can filter or modify routes based on criteria such as VPN IDs, site IDs and route attributes.
Question 45
A Cisco router uses the following QoS policy. What does the priority percent 20 command provide to the VOICE class?
policy-map WAN-QOS
 class VOICE
  priority percent 20
 class BUSINESS
  bandwidth percent 30
 class class-default
  fair-queue
A
A maximum packet loss rate of 20%
B
A minimum queue depth of 20 packets
C
A guaranteed minimum of 20% bandwidth without priority treatment
D
A DSCP marking value of 20
E
A strict-priority queue with a bandwidth allocation of 20%
Question 45 Explanation: 
The priority percent command enables Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) for the class and specifies its priority bandwidth allocation as a percentage of the interface bandwidth. During congestion, priority traffic is subject to policing according to the platform's QoS behavior.
Question 46
A service provider uses MPLS QoS to classify traffic across its backbone. Which field in the MPLS label stack entry is commonly used to carry QoS markings?
A
Label Stack Depth
B
Bottom of Stack (S) bit
C
Label Value
D
Traffic Class (TC) field
E
Time to Live (TTL)
Question 46 Explanation: 
The MPLS Traffic Class (TC) field, formerly known as the EXP bits, is commonly used for QoS classification and differentiated forwarding behavior.
Question 47
Two MPLS routers have established an LDP session successfully. Which command can a network engineer use on Cisco IOS to examine the label bindings learned through LDP?
A
show mpls forwarding-table
B
show ip cef adjacency
C
show mpls ldp bindings
D
show ip route mpls
E
show mpls interfaces summary
Question 47 Explanation: 
The show mpls ldp bindings command displays local and remote label bindings maintained by LDP. It helps verify label distribution between MPLS routers.
Question 48
A Cisco router running BGP in AS 65001 needs to present AS 65100 as its local AS to neighbor 192.0.2.2. Which command can be used?
A
neighbor 192.0.2.2 weight 65100
B
neighbor 192.0.2.2 next-hop-self 65100
C
neighbor 192.0.2.2 as-override 65100
D
neighbor 192.0.2.2 remote-as 65100
E
neighbor 192.0.2.2 local-as 65100
Question 48 Explanation: 
The neighbor local-as command allows a Cisco BGP router to present an alternate local AS number to a specific BGP neighbor. The exact AS_PATH behavior depends on the additional options configured.
Question 49
A Cisco switch running Rapid PVST+ receives superior BPDUs on a port configured with BPDU Guard. What happens to the port when a BPDU is received?
A
It becomes the root port
B
It changes automatically to a trunk port
C
It becomes an alternate port
D
It enters the forwarding state
E
It enters the err-disabled state
Question 49 Explanation: 
BPDU Guard places a protected port into the err-disabled state when it receives a BPDU. This helps protect the network from unexpected switches.
Question 50
In OSPFv3, which LSA type is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes associated with a router's interfaces within an area?
A
Type 5 — AS-External LSA
B
Type 8 — Link LSA
C
Type 4 — Inter-Area-Router LSA
D
Type 9 — Intra-Area-Prefix LSA
E
Type 3 — Inter-Area-Prefix LSA
Question 50 Explanation: 
The Intra-Area-Prefix LSA (Type 9) advertises IPv6 prefixes associated with routers and transit networks within an OSPFv3 area. Type 8 Link LSAs carry link-local information and prefixes on the local link.
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gokhan-kosem-instructor-ipcisco

Gokhan Kosem is a Network Engineer, Instructor and the Founder of IPCisco.com with 15+ years of experience in Cisco, Nokia, Huawei, Juniper, Linux, Service Provider Networks, Routing and Switching technologies.

He has worked on the backbone networks of major service providers and network vendors including Nortel, Alcatel-Lucent (Nokia) and has extensive hands-on experience with Cisco, Huawei, Juniper and Nokia networking technologies.

He has trained thousands of networking students worldwide through IPCisco.com, Udemy, books, labs, quizzes, and educational content across multiple social media platforms.

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